AMBOSS 200 High Yield (HY) Concepts for Step 2 Practice Test

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• Pregnant woman with vaginal bleeding and positive pregnancy test; ultrasound shows no intrauterine pregnancy. Diagnosis and recommended initial management?
• In primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn syndrome), potassium concentration is typically:
• Disseminated intravascular coagulation. First step in management?
• Cardiac tamponade primarily affects LV diastolic filling by causing which change?
• In a pregnant patient, when is the TDAP vaccine recommended?
• CSF findings in Guillain-Barré syndrome typically show which pattern?
• Adult with fever, neck stiffness, and photophobia; empiric antibiotics and adjunctive therapy?
• Pure motor stroke most commonly localizes to which brain structure?
• Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to obtain pleural fluid for analysis in a patient with a new pleural effusion?
• Which condition tends to have more mature neutrophils on differential?
• Which statement about Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency and liver disease is most accurate?
• In a neonate with fever and poor feeding, sepsis risk. What is the appropriate next step?
• In iron deficiency anemia, ferritin level is typically:
• Brain metastases characteristically localize to which of the following regions?
• In a patient with newly diagnosed myasthenia gravis, which imaging study is most appropriate to assess thymic pathology?
• In COPD exacerbation management, what is the role of supplemental oxygen?
• A 62-year-old man presents with crushing substernal chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST elevations in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the next best step in management?
• In postpartum hemorrhage, which statement best describes the use of tranexamic acid?
• Severe preeclampsia with signs of HELLP syndrome. Diagnosis and initial management?
• Bowel obstruction with vomiting and distension. What is the initial management?
• In adults with suspected bacterial meningitis, what is the role of dexamethasone as adjunctive therapy?
• Severe symptomatic hyponatremia with confusion. Initial management?
• Which scoring systems are used to risk-stratify patients with NSTEMI/ACS?
• MS relapse with poor response to corticosteroids is commonly treated with which adjunctive therapy?
• Miners are at risk of developing which occupational lung disease?
• Which finding most strongly supports prerenal AKI on laboratory evaluation?
• A patient with AKI has FENa 0.8% and elevated BUN/Cr ratio. This finding most strongly supports which diagnosis?
• What is the next best step in evaluating a new pleural effusion?
• In hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, what is the first-line treatment for relief of symptoms?
• In a patient with recent antibiotic exposure and persistent diarrhea, what is the appropriate management if C. difficile is suspected?
• Which organism is classically linked to pneumonia following influenza that can lead to pneumatoceles?
• In the management of a COPD exacerbation, which elements are typically included?
• Sudden tearing chest and/or back pain with pulse deficit and unequal blood pressures suggests acute aortic dissection. What is the initial management?
• Pneumonia that leads to pneumatoceles in pediatric patients is most commonly caused by which organism?
• For postpartum hemorrhage, which statement about tranexamic acid is true?
• In suspected bacterial meningitis, when should dexamethasone be given?
• In an elderly patient with hematememesis and hypotension, what is the first step in initial management?
• In neurogenic shock, what happens to cardiac output?
• A patient with LLQ pain; CT shows diverticulitis. What is the management for uncomplicated diverticulitis?
• In elderly patient with hypercalcemia and bone pain, which tests help delineate cause?
• When should the RSV vaccine be given during pregnancy?
• In individuals with IgA deficiency, which infection is most commonly seen?
• Thiamine should be administered before glucose in alcoholics to prevent Wernicke encephalopathy.
• What is the serum iron level in iron deficiency anemia?
• Inhalation of crystalline silica is classically associated with which disease?
• Which small vessel is most commonly involved in lacunar infarcts causing a pure motor stroke?
• Which type of cancer most commonly metastasizes to the brain?
• Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV) is caused by displacement of small crystals in the semicircular canals.
• For a large or symptomatic spontaneous pneumothorax, what is the recommended sequence of management?
• Which pharmacologic agent is used for DVT prophylaxis in moderate to high-risk patients after surgery?
• Pneumatocele formation is most commonly associated with pneumonia caused by which organism?
• If necrotizing soft tissue infection is suspected, what is the recommended management?
• Which occupational lung disease is associated with an increased risk of tuberculosis?
• Neurofibromatosis type 2 is most characteristically associated with which combination of tumors?
• A patient with confusion, asterixis, and elevated ammonia; management?
• Which chemical exposure is most strongly associated with berylliosis among tech and aerospace workers?
• Which statement about physostigmine is true?
• During pregnancy, when should the RSV vaccine be administered?
• Prophylaxis for close contacts of HSV meningitis?
• Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) management.
• In-hospital delirium in older adults, what is a key initial approach?
• In C. difficile infection, which antibiotic options are preferred depending on severity?
• Which type of anemia is associated with isoniazid therapy?
• For a pediatric patient with ITP and no/mild bleeding, regardless of platelet count, what is the appropriate management?
• In anterior cord syndrome, which sensory modality is lost at the level of the lesion?
• Petechial rash in meningitis is most characteristic of infection with which organism?
• In infections associated with terminal complement deficiency, which organism is most commonly encountered?
• In suspected acute pancreatitis, what is a key management step after initial stabilization?
• In iron deficiency anemia due to chronic GI blood loss, which of the following is NOT part of initial management?
• Posterior auricular lymphadenopathy is a feature of which infections?
• RUQ pain with fever; ultrasound shows gallstones and thickened gallbladder. What is the diagnosis and initial management?
• Prophylaxis for close contacts of Neisseria meningitis is best accomplished with which antibiotic?
• In severe preeclampsia, magnesium sulfate is used for what purpose?
• Which agent is most appropriate for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis after surgery in moderate/high risk patients?
• For decreasing risk of sudden cardiac death in hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, which therapy is first-line?
• In situational syncope, which trigger is classic?
• A pregnant patient with new-onset hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks. Diagnosis?
• Bilateral facial nerve palsy in an exposure-endemic region should raise suspicion for which infection?
• Pure motor lacunar infarcts most often involve which arterial territory?
• Hypotension with hyponatremia and GI symptoms; suspected adrenal crisis. Immediate management?
• 70-year-old with fever, productive cough, and right lower lobe consolidation. First-line outpatient antibiotic for CAP in a previously healthy adult?
• In complicated diverticulitis, what is the recommended management?
• Macrocytic anemia likely due to B12 deficiency. Next step?
• AKI; prerenal vs acute tubular necrosis. What test helps differentiate?
• Asymptomatic patient with QT prolongation and cramps; mild hypokalemia. Next step in management?
• What is a key preventive step to reduce risk of future anaphylaxis?
• In Guillain-Barré syndrome, the cerebrospinal fluid typically demonstrates which of the following patterns?
• In cellulitis with systemic signs where necrotizing infection is a concern, what is the next step?
• Which condition increases the risk of reactivation tuberculosis due to impaired macrophage function?
• Which antibody is most commonly associated with thymic disorders in myasthenia gravis?
• Empiric antibiotics in suspected acute meningitis should be started when?
• Which imaging modality is best to evaluate thymic pathology in suspected myasthenia gravis?
• Perioral numbness and carpal spasm; tetany due to hypocalcemia. Initial treatment?
• Which maneuver is used to diagnose BPPV?
• Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is associated with increased risk of which liver conditions?
• What type of nystagmus is typically seen in Meniere's disease?
• A 68-year-old man presents with chest pain and troponin elevation but no ST elevations on ECG. What is the initial management approach?
• Treatment for Neisseria meningitis includes which combination?
• Which of the following is not part of the initial management sequence for severe hyperkalemia with ECG changes?
• Brain metastases on imaging typically show lesions at which anatomic region?
• In iron deficiency anemia, transferrin saturation is typically:
• Wide QRS complex with tall peaked T waves; which sequence describes initial management for severe hyperkalemia with ECG changes?
• Hospitalized patient at risk for venous thromboembolism. What is recommended?
• Why is hydrocortisone given in suspected myxedema coma after adrenal coverage?
• In the evaluation of a new pleural effusion, which intervention provides diagnostic pleural fluid for analysis and is commonly performed as the initial step?
• If emergent PCI cannot be performed within 120 minutes in STEMI, what is the recommended alternative therapy?
• Which maneuver is used to diagnose BPPV?
• A patient presents with epigastric pain radiating to the back and elevated lipase. What is the likely diagnosis and initial management?
• In septic shock unresponsive to fluids, which vasopressor is first-line?
• Which heart valves are primarily affected by rheumatic fever?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed side effect of cyclosporine?
• Which statement about rubella and roseola is true regarding posterior auricular lymphadenopathy?
• Which description best summarizes the cerebrospinal fluid findings in Guillain-Barré syndrome?
• Which combination of iron studies is most consistent with iron deficiency anemia?
• Hypotension, hypoxia, and tachycardia with suspected massive pulmonary embolism. What is the definitive management if the patient is unstable?
• A patient with RLQ pain and fever; ultrasound shows an inflamed appendix. What is the preferred treatment?
• What happens to TIBC/transferrin levels in iron deficiency anemia?
• In rubella infection, which statement about the rash is correct?
• Which laboratory test is used to test for terminal complement deficiency?
• What two substances cannot be produced in G6PD deficiency?
• In diabetic ketoacidosis, which potassium level would prompt delaying insulin therapy until potassium is repleted?
• In G6PD deficiency, exposure to oxidizing agents causes which type of hemolysis?
• Ceftriaxone in infants less than 1 month has which notable side effect?
• Which gene fusion is characteristic of chronic myeloid leukemia?
• Cyclosporine can cause which neurologic side effect?
• After a transient neurologic deficit, what secondary prevention should be started?
• In suspected myxedema coma presenting with hypothermia, hypoventilation, bradycardia, and altered mental status, what is the initial management?
• Acute management of migraine is best achieved with which option?
• Which brain lobe is most involved in herpes simplex encephalitis?
• Chronic myeloid leukemia is typically associated with which LAP score?
• In anterior cord syndrome, which pattern of motor and sensory findings is most characteristic?
• For an acute severe asthma attack that does not improve with inhaled therapy, what is the next step?
• Flank pain, fever, and CVA tenderness; suspected pyelonephritis. Initial management?
• What is the immediate management step for a suspected tension pneumothorax?
• Regarding appendectomy for acute appendicitis, which statement about perioperative antibiotics is correct?
• In suspected neonatal sepsis, when should empiric antibiotics be started?
• Leukemoid reaction versus chronic myeloid leukemia (CML): which features are characteristic of a leukemoid reaction?
• Which chemical exposure is commonly associated with beryllium-related disease among workers in technology and aerospace industries?
• Cardiac tamponade has which effect on LV diastolic filling?
• A patient with polyuria, polydipsia, nausea; high blood glucose and metabolic acidosis; diagnosis and initial management?
• Which medications are commonly used for rapid intravenous blood pressure reduction in hypertensive emergencies?
• Which organism is most commonly associated with pneumatocele formation following pneumonia?
• Hereditary angioedema is due to deficiency of which protein?
• An elderly patient with fever and confusion and suspected meningitis. What empiric therapy is recommended?
• Which test assesses the function of the classical complement pathway?
• Elderly patient with bone pain and elevated calcium; next step in evaluation?
• In hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, which is a first-line therapy for reducing exertional symptoms?
• In acute severe asthma, which combination of therapies should be considered if initial inhaled therapy fails?
• Sepsis patient with hypotension after 1 hour of fluid boluses. What is the key component of management?
• Coxsackie A typically causes which condition?
• Which gene is associated with Alzheimer's disease in individuals with trisomy 21?
• An acute ischemic stroke within the therapeutic window. What is the main treatment consideration?
• In suspected septic arthritis, what is the immediate next step in management?
• Which infection is most common in terminal complement deficiency?
• In a postpartum patient with heavy vaginal bleeding unresponsive to fundal massage, what is the next step in management?
• Which type of anemia is associated with isoniazid therapy?
• In this scenario, which step is most appropriate first when ultrasound shows no intrauterine pregnancy in a patient with vaginal bleeding?
• Which best describes the distribution of the roseola rash?
• Iron deficiency anemia due to chronic GI blood loss. Initial management?
• Management of an acute multiple sclerosis relapse typically includes which therapy?
• For long-term management of deep vein thrombosis, which therapy is preferred?
• Which disease is most classically linked to inhalation of crystalline silica?
• Hereditary angioedema is caused by deficiency of which protein, resulting in excess bradykinin and vasodilation?
• Hyponatremia in a smoker most commonly reflects SIADH due to which tumor?
• Which occupational lung disease is strongly linked to an increased risk of mycobacterial infection, including tuberculosis?
• Meningococcal prophylaxis timing for close contacts is best described as which of the following?
• Which is the most common cause of congestive heart failure after myocardial infarction?
• Which acetylcholinesterase inhibitor crosses the blood-brain barrier?
• Cirrhotic patient with fever and ascites; suspected spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. Next step?
• In an acute seizure in the ED with a postictal state, what are the essential next steps?
• What is the triad of Meniere's disease?
• Which statement best describes WBC counts typically seen in the condition with a BCR-ABL fusion?
• A known complication of right-sided infective endocarditis is which of the following?
• In evaluation of newly diagnosed hypertension, which test is indicated for all patients?
• A patient with fever, tachycardia, agitation, and sweating; suspected thyroid storm. Immediate treatment?
• In the ED, what is the initial management priority for a hypertensive emergency?
• In late septic shock, what happens to cardiac output?
• Which statement about Neurofibromatosis type 2 is NOT correct?
• What is reported as the most common Hodgkin lymphoma in adults?